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Sep 18, 2020 at 6:04 answer added JimN timeline score: 1
Sep 17, 2020 at 21:13 comment added Jim farned My sense is that if the graph is simplified (eg., vertices with only two edges intersecting are eliminated), then the usual definition of "chordless cycle" would suffice. Here is my intuition. Suppose there are two chordless cycles, X and Y. X={ab,bc,cd,de,ea} and Y={pq,qr,rc,ct,tp}. Then at the common vertex c, four edges must be properly ordered (say, clockwise) around the vertex c. Obviously, the ordering (bc)(rc)(cd)(ct) would violate planarity, as the chordless cycles would overlap.
Sep 16, 2020 at 23:42 comment added JimN can you elaborate on 'chordless cycles' ? Most definitions refer to a chord of a cycle $v_1,v_2,v_3,v_4,...,v_n,v_1$ to mean an edge from one $v_i$ to another $v_j$ with $|i-j| \neq 1$ (mod n). But I think in your context, you would be counting a path to qualify as a chord. Does the path necessarily have to be a subdivision of a single edge? Can you maybe illustrate your V and P for a graph like {ab,bc,cd,de,ef,fa, gf,gb,he,hc} ?
Sep 16, 2020 at 21:41 history edited YCor CC BY-SA 4.0
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Sep 16, 2020 at 21:07 history edited Jim farned CC BY-SA 4.0
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Sep 16, 2020 at 23:13
Sep 16, 2020 at 20:58 history asked Jim farned CC BY-SA 4.0