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Apr 18 at 18:48 vote accept Sergey Grigoryants
Sep 16, 2020 at 16:03 answer added nombre timeline score: 4
Sep 8, 2020 at 12:18 comment added YCor I'm maybe too hasty. Possibly one should first replace $m\mapsto u_n(m)$ with $\min(u_n(m),m2^{-n})$.
Sep 8, 2020 at 11:46 comment added Sergey Grigoryants @YCor, Sorry, maybe I don't understand, but I don't think this construction is working. For example, let's take $$u_n(k) = \begin{cases} 2^{2k},\quad k = n \\ \floor{\sqrt{k}},\quad else \end{cases}$$ In this case, $u(m) = 1 + 2^m$, hence $u(m) \neq o(m)$.
Sep 7, 2020 at 21:32 comment added YCor Let $(u_n)$ be a sequence of such sequences. I guess: set $u(m)=1+\max_{k\le m}\lceil 2^{-k}u_k(m)\rceil$ satisfies $u\ge 2^{-k}u_k$ for all $k$ and $u(m)=o(m)$ when $m\to\omega$, so if $v(m)=m/\sqrt{m/v(m)}$, then it should work.
Sep 7, 2020 at 16:52 comment added YCor Let $(u_n)$ be a sequence of such sequences. I guess something like $u(m)=\max_{k\le m}\lceil 2^{-k}u_k(m)\rceil$ should work.
Sep 7, 2020 at 16:05 comment added Sergey Grigoryants @Ycor thank you now I see the whole point. But how to prove, that set of $n \in *\mathbb{N}$ such that $\frac{n(m)}{m} \to 0$ has uncountable cofinality?
Sep 7, 2020 at 15:59 comment added YCor By "$X$ has uncountable cofinality" I mean "for every countable subset $Y\subset X$ there exists $x\in X$ such that $\forall y\in Y$, $y<x$".
Sep 7, 2020 at 15:51 comment added Emil Jeřábek You seem to be misreading cofinality as cardinality.
Sep 7, 2020 at 15:45 comment added Sergey Grigoryants Sorry, maybe I don't understand, but this claim is not true for arbitrary totally ordered uncountable set. For example, there is no strictly increasing $\omega_1$ sequence of reals.
Sep 7, 2020 at 15:25 comment added YCor If $X$ is a totally ordered set of uncountable cofinality, define (with choice) by transfinite induction $x_\alpha$ as some element $>x_\beta$ for all $\beta<\alpha$, for $\alpha\in\omega_1$.
Sep 7, 2020 at 15:23 comment added Sergey Grigoryants @Ycor thank you for your first note. I removed the redundant condition. But how uncountable cofinality implies the existence of strictly increasing $\omega_1$ sequence?
Sep 7, 2020 at 15:16 history edited Sergey Grigoryants CC BY-SA 4.0
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Sep 7, 2020 at 14:39 comment added YCor The question seems to be whether every sequence is unbounded, which is purportedly negatively answered here. Isn't the question rather whether some sequence is unbounded (which would better fit the title)?
Sep 7, 2020 at 14:35 comment added YCor The set of $n\in{^*\mathbb{N}}$ such that $\lim_{m\to\omega} n(m)/m=0$ is convex but has uncountable cofinality. So there exists $(n_\alpha)$ satisfying (1) such that each $n_\alpha$ is less than the sequence $m\mapsto m$.
Sep 7, 2020 at 14:29 comment added YCor I don't think (2) will play any role (if $u$ satisfies (1), it's easy to produce $u'$ satisfying (1) and (2), and such that $u$ is bounded iff $u'$ is bounded).
Sep 7, 2020 at 14:25 history edited YCor CC BY-SA 4.0
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Sep 7, 2020 at 14:08 history asked Sergey Grigoryants CC BY-SA 4.0