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Sep 6, 2020 at 4:32 comment added user44143 A simple counterexample: $X_i=Y_i=N(1,3^i)$
Sep 5, 2020 at 22:20 review Close votes
Sep 10, 2020 at 3:04
Sep 5, 2020 at 22:01 history edited YCor CC BY-SA 4.0
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Sep 5, 2020 at 21:44 comment added fedja "Almost surely" - definitely not: Just take $X_i$ and $Y_i$ independent Gaussians with mean zero (shift the expectations a tiny bit to have the second ratio well-defined if $0/0$ bothers you) and the same variance. Then the ratios for very different $n$ are almost independent but the distribution is all the way the same (that of the ratio of 2 standard Gaussians) and not that of a constant.
Sep 5, 2020 at 21:34 history edited Ledog CC BY-SA 4.0
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Sep 5, 2020 at 21:25 history edited Ledog CC BY-SA 4.0
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Sep 5, 2020 at 21:21 review First posts
Sep 6, 2020 at 1:17
Sep 5, 2020 at 21:20 history asked Ledog CC BY-SA 4.0