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Sep 5, 2020 at 15:32 history closed LSpice
user44191
user6671
Stanley Yao Xiao
Philippe Gaucher
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Sep 4, 2020 at 16:41 review Close votes
Sep 5, 2020 at 15:32
Sep 4, 2020 at 15:57 comment added Nulhomologous why do you say that there are more than $n$ non-equivalent homogeneous quadratic polynomials in $n$ variables when the lemma asserts there are exactly $n$?
Sep 4, 2020 at 15:53 answer added Random timeline score: 3
Sep 4, 2020 at 15:46 comment added joro @JoeSilverman Thanks. I edited with "there are more than n non-equivalent f_i", is this true? I will accept as an answer correctness of the lemma.
Sep 4, 2020 at 15:43 history edited joro CC BY-SA 4.0
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Sep 4, 2020 at 15:29 comment added Joe Silverman You assumption that "Basically there are infinitely many non-equivalent $f$" is false. Try writing out the proof for 2 variables and you'll see what's going on.
Sep 4, 2020 at 15:23 history asked joro CC BY-SA 4.0