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Nov 3, 2020 at 18:00 review Close votes
Nov 9, 2020 at 3:06
Nov 3, 2020 at 17:42 comment added Noah Schweber I think this question would be more appropriate at math.stackexchange.
Nov 3, 2020 at 17:25 history edited YCor CC BY-SA 4.0
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Nov 3, 2020 at 17:03 history bumped CommunityBot This question has answers that may be good or bad; the system has marked it active so that they can be reviewed.
S Oct 4, 2020 at 16:10 history suggested gmvh
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Oct 4, 2020 at 15:21 review Suggested edits
S Oct 4, 2020 at 16:10
Oct 4, 2020 at 14:03 history bumped CommunityBot This question has answers that may be good or bad; the system has marked it active so that they can be reviewed.
Sep 4, 2020 at 17:20 comment added Pace Nielsen @EmilJeřábek Ah, I meant to write "not the axioms of Peano arithmetic." Sorry for the inaccuracy.
Sep 4, 2020 at 16:42 comment added Emil Jeřábek @PaceNielsen These are, in fact, more or less the axioms originally postulated by Peano (see archive.org/details/arithmeticespri00peangoog/page/n22/mode/2up). This is different from what later became to be known as the “Peano arithmetic”.
Sep 4, 2020 at 13:51 comment added Emil Jeřábek You can rewrite the argument symbolically without using the graph-theoretical terminology (but I think this makes it less intuitive): if 4 fails, then (since $\mathbb N=\{s^{(k)}(1):k<\omega\}$ by 5) there exists $k>0$ such that $s^{(k)}(1)=1$. Then $s^{(k+l)}(1)=s^{(l)}(1)$ for all $l$, that is, $s^{(k)}(n)=n$ for all $n\in\mathbb N$. (Or if you prefer: then $s^{(k)}(n)=n$ for all $n\in\mathbb N$ by induction on $n$.) Thus, if $s(n)=s(m)$, then $n=s^{(k)}(n)=s^{(k-1)}(s(n))=s^{(k-1)}(s(m))=s^{(k)}(m)=m$.
Sep 4, 2020 at 13:20 history edited Andrés E. Caicedo
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Sep 4, 2020 at 12:04 answer added Gerald Edgar timeline score: 0
Sep 4, 2020 at 11:20 history edited Curiosity
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Sep 4, 2020 at 10:37 history edited Asaf Karagila CC BY-SA 4.0
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Sep 4, 2020 at 10:29 comment added Curiosity This question came up in a discussion (not homework) on elementary set theory for first year university students using a book like Enderton's Elements of Set Theory. So, elementary means using only basic facts like logic, sets, what a function is (covered in the first 3 chapters of Enderton's book).
Sep 4, 2020 at 10:22 answer added JimN timeline score: 0
Sep 4, 2020 at 10:15 comment added JimN I don't see why "an infinite path" must imply 3 and 4 to hold.
Sep 4, 2020 at 9:47 review Close votes
Sep 6, 2020 at 20:42
Sep 4, 2020 at 9:46 comment added Emil Jeřábek If you consider cycles and paths advanced, then I really have no idea what you mean by elementary.
Sep 4, 2020 at 9:40 comment added Curiosity @EmilJeřábek Thanks, I see now. However, since this statement is about basic set theory, is there a proof that uses just the bare-minimum of elementary logic/reasoning rather than more advanced notions of paths/cycles? It seems like there should be such a proof.
Sep 4, 2020 at 9:30 comment added Emil Jeřábek Well, the induction axiom is equivalent to $\mathbb N=\{1,s(1),s(s(1)),\dots\}$ (that is, $\{s^{(k)}(1):k\in\omega\}$). Thus, the graph of $s$ consists of a single directed walk starting from $1$. Either this is an infinite path (in which case both 3 and 4 hold), or it eventually enters a cycle; if it is just a cycle, then 3 holds and 4 fails, whereas if there is a nonempty path leading to the cycle, then 3 fails and 4 holds. So, yes, 3 or 4 must hold.
Sep 4, 2020 at 9:21 review First posts
Sep 4, 2020 at 10:38
Sep 4, 2020 at 9:12 history asked Curiosity CC BY-SA 4.0