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Sep 3, 2020 at 16:08 comment added Willie Wong a note on terminology: usually measures are only pushed forward, and differential forms are pulled back. Defining pullback measures is tricky mathoverflow.net/q/122704/3948 .
S Sep 3, 2020 at 15:03 history edited Yemon Choi
corrected spelling in title
S Sep 3, 2020 at 15:03 history suggested RobPratt CC BY-SA 4.0
corrected spelling in title and added a tag
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S Sep 3, 2020 at 15:03
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Sep 18, 2020 at 3:06
Sep 3, 2020 at 13:16 history edited RaphaelB4 CC BY-SA 4.0
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Sep 3, 2020 at 13:11 answer added Sebastian timeline score: 3
Sep 3, 2020 at 13:09 comment added mme $S^n$ does not have a Haar measure unless $n=0,1,3$. Maybe $7$ if you stretch the meaning of Haar measure a bit. Ignoring this, most manifolds do not have self-maps of arbitrary degree; and if you want $\nu$ to also be nonvanishing then $f$ should be a covering map (even less common). It is a theorem of Moser that if $\int \omega = \int \nu$ for two nonvanishing top forms, then there's an oriented diffeomorphism $f$ with $f^*\nu = \omega$. The proof is what's usually called the Moser trick.
Sep 3, 2020 at 12:52 history asked RaphaelB4 CC BY-SA 4.0