Timeline for $(B\mathbb Z/p^{\infty})^{\wedge}_p\rightarrow (BS^1)^{\wedge}_p$ induced by inclusion is an equivalence
Current License: CC BY-SA 4.0
7 events
when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
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Sep 29, 2020 at 22:22 | vote | accept | Victor TC | ||
Sep 4, 2020 at 18:02 | comment | added | Victor TC | Fine!, I was wrong, sorry. Thank you again. | |
Sep 4, 2020 at 5:47 | comment | added | Achim Krause | I'm not sure I correctly remember what $p$-good means, but note that the mod $p$ homology of $B\mathbb{Q}$ is of course zero. | |
Sep 3, 2020 at 22:38 | comment | added | Victor TC | but $B\mathbb{R}$ is contractible, and $B\mathbb{Q}$ is $p$-good. So far, their $p$-completions cannot be homotopy equivalent. | |
Sep 3, 2020 at 7:30 | comment | added | Achim Krause | Yes, I think if you want to turn this idea into an actual proof you look at the induced map of fiber sequences $B\mathbb{Q}\to B\mathbb{Q/Z} \to K(Z,2)$ and $B\mathbb{R}\to B\mathbb{S^1}\to K(Z,2)$, and observe that the map on the fibers becomes an equivalence after $p$-completion. | |
Sep 3, 2020 at 1:28 | comment | added | Victor TC | Thank you!, do you mean $B\mathbb{Q}^{\wedge}_p\rightarrow B\mathbb{R}^{\wedge}_p$ is a homotopy equivalence? | |
Sep 2, 2020 at 22:50 | history | answered | Achim Krause | CC BY-SA 4.0 |