Skip to main content

Timeline for GIT and singularities

Current License: CC BY-SA 4.0

11 events
when toggle format what by license comment
Aug 30, 2020 at 16:35 comment added Jason Starr @Angelo. That is precisely how I made the normal counterexample below. I started with a normal counterexample for the cyclic group of order 2 and induced an example for the multiplicative group.
Aug 30, 2020 at 11:00 vote accept Simon Parker
Aug 30, 2020 at 9:44 answer added Jason Starr timeline score: 6
Aug 30, 2020 at 8:08 comment added Angelo This is clearly false for finite groups (take the union of the two coordinate axes in $\mathbb A^2$, with the involution that switches the two axes. For a connected example, embed the cyclic group into $\mathbb G_\mathrm{m}$, and consider the induced action.
Aug 29, 2020 at 19:03 comment added Jason Starr I was wrong! There are, indeed, nilpotent matrices that are regular.
Aug 29, 2020 at 19:02 comment added Simon Parker @JasonStarr I'm trying to understand your counterexample in the 2 x 2 case, and it doesn't seem to work (I may be wrong). The non-invertible matrices are the locus of $ad - bc = 0$, so the only singular point is the zero matrix. Hence, any non-zero nilpotent matrix is a non-singular point of the fibre above zero. What am I missing?
Aug 29, 2020 at 18:54 comment added Jason Starr That is still not true. The GIT quotient of the conjugation action on the locus of non-invertible matrices is the affine space given by the coefficients of the characteristic polynomial (in particular, the constant coefficient equals $0$). The fiber over the origin in this affine space is the nilpotent cone inside the locus of non-invertible matrices, and every nilpotent matrix gives a singular point of this locus.
Aug 29, 2020 at 18:42 history edited Simon Parker CC BY-SA 4.0
added 76 characters in body
Aug 29, 2020 at 18:18 history edited Simon Parker CC BY-SA 4.0
added 317 characters in body
Aug 28, 2020 at 21:28 comment added Spenser I think that singular points can be mapped to smooth points. Take $xy = 0$ and let $\mathbb{C}^*$ act by $z\cdot(x, y) = (zx, y)$. The quotient is $\mathbb{C}$.
Aug 28, 2020 at 21:18 history asked Simon Parker CC BY-SA 4.0