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Sep 6, 2020 at 22:24 comment added Zhen Lin The smallest category for which this argument works is indeed the image of the functor $Q$ in the slice category over $F$. But it also works for any other subcategory of the slice over $F$ that contains the image of $Q$.
Sep 6, 2020 at 20:03 comment added display llvll This is more or less what is done in Hirschhorn theorem 14.5.4
Sep 6, 2020 at 20:01 comment added display llvll Probably to complete your proof one needs to show that the category you built is a deformation retract of the category of resolutions.
Sep 6, 2020 at 16:13 comment added display llvll I guess I still have a problem. What you are doing is take the image of the functor $Q$ and take the slice over $F$ and show is contractible. I’m not sure this is the category of resolutions. Because not all maps of resolutions come from functorial factorization. The fact that lets you say that $p$ is a natural transformation is that all maps in your category come from functorial factorization; but this is not the case in the category of resolutions, where there are more maps.
Sep 6, 2020 at 6:11 comment added Zhen Lin Yes, you take a functorial cofibrant replacement of a cofibrant replacement.
Sep 6, 2020 at 4:34 comment added display llvll Do you agree or I’m still not understanding ?
Sep 6, 2020 at 3:04 comment added display llvll Sorry I didnt see your reply. So you are taking a cofibrant replacement of an object which is already cofibrant? $F'$ must be cofibrant otherwise it's not even in the category we want to prove is contractible, this is what I was saying.
Sep 6, 2020 at 3:00 comment added display llvll As I understand it, what you have done is say that for any resolution $\Gamma,$ you have a wk $\Gamma \to X,$ (what I called $X$ in my question) and you claim that this is natural w.r.t. maps $\Gamma_1 \to \Gamma_2,$ which I don't see how.
Sep 6, 2020 at 2:40 comment added Zhen Lin The intermediate is $Q F'$. $F'$ is cofibrant for the purposes of this question but it doesn’t really matter.
Sep 6, 2020 at 2:32 comment added display llvll Or maybe you are taking $F' $ already a cofibrant replacement?
Sep 6, 2020 at 2:27 comment added display llvll I thought what you were trying to do was to connect any other cofibrant replacement to $QF$ through $F.$ But $F$ lies outside the category, so it can't be what you were doing.
Sep 6, 2020 at 2:20 comment added display llvll And where is the zig-zag?
Sep 6, 2020 at 2:19 comment added display llvll In your diagram, you are just restating the fact that what you call $p$ is a natural transformation from $Q$ to the identity on $\mathcal{M}.$ What I do not understand is how does this say that there is "a zigzag of natural transformations connecting the identity functor on $\mathcal{Q} (F)$ and a constant functor". What constant functor?
Sep 6, 2020 at 2:08 comment added Zhen Lin Constant on $Q F$.
Sep 6, 2020 at 2:06 comment added display llvll Sorry if I come back on this but I was looking at the proof with more care and I realized I don't actually understand. I don't see how you built the zig-zag of natural transformations from the identity to the constant functor. For starters, who would be the constant functor? On which object it is constant?
Aug 31, 2020 at 1:05 comment added Zhen Lin Apply the nerve functor. The natural transformations literally become simplicial homotopies. If you prefer to work with actual topological spaces then apply the geometric realisation functor as well.
Aug 31, 2020 at 1:00 comment added display llvll I see the analogy in the sense that if we define a homotopy between functors as a zig-zag of natural transformations, then clearly by your proof we retract $Q(F)$ to a point by deformation. But why is this the right notion of homotopy which agrees with the definition of contractibility that uses the nerve?
Aug 31, 2020 at 0:54 comment added display llvll OK. But how do you show that a zig-zag of natural transformations connecting the identity functor and a constant functor is a sufficient condition for contractibility? It seems that is where all the meat of the proof is.
Aug 27, 2020 at 3:47 comment added Zhen Lin I'm surprised you say that you "don't understand anything of the proof", then – this is a much easier proof than what you proposed. It doesn't even rely on Quillen's Theorem A, which in my view is a non-trivial result concerning homotopy colimits.
Aug 27, 2020 at 3:36 review Low quality posts
Aug 27, 2020 at 7:52
Aug 27, 2020 at 3:12 comment added display llvll Thanks but I am not interested in another proof, there's a proof of this result on any book and they are all similar to this one. I wanted to see if my proof could work and I realized there is a point that does not work (thank you for making me think more about the last bullet). I never asked for a different proof so I'm sorry but I don't see how this is an answer to my question.
Aug 27, 2020 at 1:58 history answered Zhen Lin CC BY-SA 4.0