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Apr 19, 2023 at 14:52 comment added Greg Kuperberg I just noticed this a long time later. Thanks!
Aug 25, 2020 at 12:02 history undeleted Jeremy Rickard
Aug 25, 2020 at 12:01 history deleted Jeremy Rickard via Vote
Aug 25, 2020 at 12:00 comment added Jeremy Rickard Although it is well known that $\operatorname{Ext}^1_{\mathbb{Z}_p}(\mathbb{Q}_p,\mathbb{Z}_p)=0$, and it's not too hard to prove, I couldn't find a convenient reference giving a proof. Does anybody know one?
Aug 25, 2020 at 11:59 history answered Jeremy Rickard CC BY-SA 4.0