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Aug 20, 2020 at 13:12 comment added LSpice Re, in particular, as @JeremyRickard says, the key object is in what category you're working. If you embed $\mathbb Q$ in $G = \langle\mathbb Q, x, y \mathrel: [x, y] = 1\rangle$, then the identity map on $\mathbb Q$ does not extend to $G \to \mathbb Q$—we left the category of Abelian groups.
Aug 20, 2020 at 12:52 answer added Jeremy Rickard timeline score: 9
Aug 20, 2020 at 12:35 history edited Martin Sleziak CC BY-SA 4.0
typo in the title
Aug 20, 2020 at 12:31 comment added Jeremy Rickard There are various proofs in, or referred to in, this thread.
Aug 20, 2020 at 12:26 history edited Andrey CC BY-SA 4.0
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Aug 20, 2020 at 12:18 comment added Andrey Thank you. Yes, I mean an injective abelian group, but I do not understand why is an injective group trivial. For example, groups of rational numbers $\mathbb{Q}$ is an injective or sometimes is called infinity divisible group. Can you tell me any classical book where I can find it in details.
Aug 20, 2020 at 11:07 comment added Jeremy Rickard Could you clarify what you mean by an injective group? Do you mean an injective abelian group? The only injective objects in the category of (not necessarily abelian) groups are trivial groups, so if that’s what you mean then the answer to your question is trivially “yes”!
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Aug 20, 2020 at 9:15 history asked Andrey CC BY-SA 4.0