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Feb 1, 2021 at 9:25 comment added GH from MO @AlexeyUstinov: Indeed, since $\sum_{k=1}^\infty\mu(k)\log^2 k/k^2$ converges.
Feb 1, 2021 at 8:59 comment added Alexey Ustinov One can also replace the first $O(1)$ by $O(k\log x/x).$ It will give the constant term in asymptotic formula and the error term $O(\log^2 x/x).$
Aug 23, 2020 at 3:31 vote accept Alapan Das
Aug 20, 2020 at 10:57 history edited GH from MO CC BY-SA 4.0
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Aug 20, 2020 at 10:48 history edited GH from MO CC BY-SA 4.0
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Aug 20, 2020 at 10:19 history edited GH from MO CC BY-SA 4.0
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Aug 20, 2020 at 4:05 history edited GH from MO CC BY-SA 4.0
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Aug 20, 2020 at 4:04 vote accept Alapan Das
Aug 23, 2020 at 3:31
Aug 20, 2020 at 4:03 history edited GH from MO CC BY-SA 4.0
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Aug 20, 2020 at 3:57 history edited GH from MO CC BY-SA 4.0
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Aug 20, 2020 at 3:31 history answered GH from MO CC BY-SA 4.0