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Aug 16, 2020 at 7:45 comment added Giorgio Metafune A similar argument: once $F(0)=0$ has been proved, then $F(x)=\int_0^x F'(t)dt$ and $$\int_0^1 \frac{|F(x)|}{x^2}dx\le \int_0^1 \frac{1}{x^2} dx\int_0^x |F'(t)|dt=\int_0^1 |F'(t)|dt \int_t^1 x^{-2}dx=\int_0^1 |F'(t)|\frac{1-t}{t}dt$$.
Aug 15, 2020 at 23:33 comment added Fedor Petrov @LSpice yes, now added
Aug 15, 2020 at 23:33 history edited Fedor Petrov CC BY-SA 4.0
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Aug 15, 2020 at 23:13 comment added LSpice You’re proving that the answer to the stated question (does there exist $F$ such that $F(x)/x \in L^1$, $F’(x)/x \in L^1$, $F(x)/x^2 \notin L^1$) is “no”, right?
Aug 15, 2020 at 23:12 history edited Fedor Petrov CC BY-SA 4.0
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Aug 15, 2020 at 23:03 vote accept Tony419
Aug 15, 2020 at 23:03 comment added Tony419 Cool, thanks! :]
Aug 15, 2020 at 22:59 history answered Fedor Petrov CC BY-SA 4.0