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Aug 16, 2020 at 3:29 history became hot network question
Aug 15, 2020 at 23:03 vote accept Tony419
Aug 15, 2020 at 22:59 answer added Fedor Petrov timeline score: 11
Aug 15, 2020 at 20:31 comment added Keba Not if $F$ is nonnegative and increasing near $0$: Condition 1 implies $F(0) = 0$, hence by the mean value theorem $F(x) \le x F'(\xi) \le x F'(x_0)$ for some $\xi \in (0, x_0)$ and small $x_0 > 0$. My intuition tells me that then it should not be possible in general (for instance, multiplying with something like $\sin(1/x)$ worsens the problem).
Aug 15, 2020 at 20:07 history edited Amir Sagiv CC BY-SA 4.0
typo in title
Aug 15, 2020 at 19:29 history asked Tony419 CC BY-SA 4.0