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Aug 18, 2020 at 11:01 vote accept Anton Klyachko
Aug 15, 2020 at 1:00 comment added Donu Arapura @LSpice I don't agree. While it's true this was asked and answered before, the sites are different. Some of us don't usually look at the other one.
Aug 14, 2020 at 18:26 review Close votes
Aug 16, 2020 at 14:11
Aug 14, 2020 at 18:07 comment added LSpice I’m voting to close this question because @DavidESpeyer points out it's a duplicate of math.stackexchange.com/questions/305696 .
Aug 14, 2020 at 16:31 comment added Anton Klyachko @LSpice, I have changed the letter:)
Aug 14, 2020 at 16:27 history edited Anton Klyachko CC BY-SA 4.0
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Aug 14, 2020 at 16:26 answer added Anton Klyachko timeline score: 5
Aug 14, 2020 at 14:21 comment added David E Speyer As everyone is saying, this follows from Noether-Deuring. See mathoverflow.net/questions/28469/hilbert-90-for-algebras for a quick proof. I also asked this question a while back math.stackexchange.com/questions/305696 .
Aug 14, 2020 at 14:17 comment added darij grinberg Yes, this follows from the Noether-Deuring theorem, as @JeremyRickard has said. You don't even need to consider infinite-dimensional algebras for that; it suffices to use the subalgebra of the matrix ring generated by the matrices $A_1, A_2, \ldots, A_m$.
Aug 14, 2020 at 14:14 comment added LSpice I like this question, but I have never before seen someone so notationally bold as to use $G$ for a field. (My personal field alphabet has $E$ or $K$ as the next letter after $F$.) Now what do we call algebraic groups over $G$? // Also, is it any help to look at a matrix $\widetilde T$ over $F$ conjugating $A_1 \oplus \dotsb \oplus A_m$ to $B_1 \oplus \dotsb \oplus B_m$?
Aug 14, 2020 at 14:07 history edited YCor
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Aug 14, 2020 at 13:35 comment added Fedor Petrov @GeoffRobinson ah, $Im(S)$ is invariant for all $A_i$, thus for all matrices, thus it is the whole space $F^n$, and $S$ is invertible. This seems to avoid the uniqueness argument.
Aug 14, 2020 at 12:58 comment added Geoff Robinson Irreducible in my proof above meant under left multiplication by all of $M_{n}(G)$.
Aug 14, 2020 at 12:52 comment added Geoff Robinson @Jeremy Rickard: I think it probably does, but I always remember the irreducible case
Aug 14, 2020 at 12:50 comment added Jeremy Rickard Doesn't the Noether-Deuring theorem work anyway? The hypotheses give us two finite-dimensional modules over the free algebra $F\langle x_1,\dots,x_m\rangle$ that become isomorphic when you extend scalars to $G$, so by Noether-Deuring they are already isomorphic over $F$.
Aug 14, 2020 at 12:45 comment added Geoff Robinson @FedorPetrov :It's Schur's Lemma I think. The $A_{i}$ span $M_{n}(F)$ over $F$ and certainly span $M_{n}(G)$ over $G$. Hence the $B_{i}$ span $M_{n}(G)$ as well. Thus, over $G$ , if there is a non-zero matrix $S$ with $A_{i}S = SB_{i}$ for each $i$. Then $ImS$ is an invariant subspace of the vectors space $G^{n}$ of column vectors., so is the whole space $G^{n}$. Thus $S$ is invertible, and the we have $TS^{-1}A_{i}ST^{-1} = A_{i}$ for each $i$, so $ST^{-1}$ is scalar.
Aug 14, 2020 at 12:21 comment added Fedor Petrov @Geoff why is it unique?
Aug 14, 2020 at 11:52 history edited Anton Klyachko CC BY-SA 4.0
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Aug 14, 2020 at 11:30 comment added Geoff Robinson I think that if the $A_{i}$ span ${\rm M}_{n}(F)$, then I the answer is yes, essentially as in the Noether-Doering Theorem, there is a solution to the linear equations in the smaller field, because there is one in the bigger field. This solution is then unique up to non-zero scalar multiples, so since the solution in the bigger field gives an invertible matrix, so does the one in the smaller field.
Aug 14, 2020 at 11:12 comment added Anton Klyachko I have edited that. In these cases the answer is yes.
Aug 14, 2020 at 11:10 history edited Anton Klyachko CC BY-SA 4.0
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Aug 14, 2020 at 10:04 history asked Anton Klyachko CC BY-SA 4.0