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Aug 10, 2020 at 16:11 comment added Iosif Pinelis @bryanjaeho : Oops! The integral is of course from$0$ to $\pi/2$, not to $1$. This typo is now corrected
Aug 10, 2020 at 16:08 history edited Iosif Pinelis CC BY-SA 4.0
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Aug 10, 2020 at 16:01 vote accept bryanjaeho
Aug 10, 2020 at 16:00 comment added bryanjaeho I believe the integral should be over $\frac{1}{2}\Big(\frac{1}{x}-\frac{\pi}{2}\cdot \cot(\pi/2\cdot x)\Big)$ ranging from $0$ to $1$. Thank you for the approach!
Aug 10, 2020 at 15:41 comment added bryanjaeho Just to make sure, the definite integral on the left gives $-\ln(\sin(1))$?
Aug 10, 2020 at 13:59 history answered Iosif Pinelis CC BY-SA 4.0