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S May 12, 2022 at 2:40 history bounty ended Michael Hardy
S May 12, 2022 at 2:40 history notice removed Michael Hardy
May 12, 2022 at 2:39 vote accept Michael Hardy
May 7, 2022 at 6:41 answer added Carlo Beenakker timeline score: 2
S May 7, 2022 at 5:50 history bounty started Michael Hardy
S May 7, 2022 at 5:50 history notice added Michael Hardy Draw attention
May 2, 2021 at 17:28 comment added Michael Hardy @EFinat-S : Maybe something I said above in comments can be made clearer: It is precisely the fact that there are such great differences as the one example that you cite that is the occasion for this question.
S Apr 7, 2021 at 17:04 history bounty ended CommunityBot
S Apr 7, 2021 at 17:04 history notice removed CommunityBot
S Mar 30, 2021 at 15:29 history bounty started Michael Hardy
S Mar 30, 2021 at 15:29 history notice added Michael Hardy Draw attention
Aug 14, 2020 at 17:42 comment added Michael Hardy @EFinat-S : As far as I know, I did.
Aug 14, 2020 at 17:39 comment added efs "At any rate what I had in mind has more to do with what Leibniz and Robinson have in common". If you have that in mind, well, ask that.
Aug 14, 2020 at 17:31 comment added Michael Hardy @EFinat-S : "Abuse of notation" is a bit of jargon that mathematicians use too much. I wonder whether there are any "abuses of notation" that are not in fact good notation. They are called abuses only because codified formalisms do not countenance them. The possibility that those formalisms are less than the whole truth should be considered. At any rate what I had in mind has more to do with what Leibniz and Robinson have in common.
Aug 14, 2020 at 17:24 comment added efs My intention was not to offend you. Also, I'm not a native speaker of english, so it is sometimes difficult to make me understand. Perhaps its the phrase "gets used" what does not seems clear (at least to me): historically? formally? simply as an "abuse" of notation?
Aug 14, 2020 at 17:19 comment added Michael Hardy @EFinat-S : Well, you've managed to surprise me at least. That there are great differences among those something I had to be acutely aware of in order to think of asking this question. And if I were to specify something like either the original usage of Leibniz or the formalization by Robinson, etc., then nothing would be left of the question at all. It's as if you had told someone who's driving to a destination that it's possible to run the car's engine without going anywhere, so why not do that instead?
Aug 14, 2020 at 15:09 comment added efs At least for me, the question is not clear since there is a distinction between, for example: the original notation used by Leibniz; the formalization of this notation (Robinson et al.); the derived notations inspired by the concept of differential in other branches, etc. Perhaps you could be more specific in what aspects are you interested about this.
Aug 10, 2020 at 0:11 comment added Michael Hardy @CarloBeenakker : Do you have any guesses as to what someone might find unclear about this?
Aug 9, 2020 at 20:08 review Close votes
Aug 28, 2020 at 3:02
Aug 9, 2020 at 19:51 comment added LSpice It's also clearly not research level (although lots of also clearly-not-research-level historical questions do well on MO anyway).
Aug 9, 2020 at 19:46 comment added Carlo Beenakker from what I read on MSE it was closed as not being clear enough --- I'm not sure that asking the same question here will be helpful.
Aug 9, 2020 at 19:38 history asked Michael Hardy CC BY-SA 4.0