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Aug 28, 2021 at 16:17 history closed abx
Steven Landsburg
Ben McKay
Ryan Budney
Mark Wildon
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Aug 19, 2021 at 20:04 review Close votes
Aug 28, 2021 at 16:17
Aug 19, 2021 at 19:07 history bumped CommunityBot This question has answers that may be good or bad; the system has marked it active so that they can be reviewed.
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Apr 26, 2021 at 3:06
Apr 21, 2021 at 18:09 history bumped CommunityBot This question has answers that may be good or bad; the system has marked it active so that they can be reviewed.
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Nov 22, 2020 at 16:10 answer added Incnis Mrsi timeline score: 0
Aug 9, 2020 at 18:54 comment added Kamel @Ben Mackay thank you
Aug 9, 2020 at 17:36 comment added Ben McKay @Kamel: The pullback $f^*\omega^p$ vanishes just when $f$ has rank less than $p$ at every point of $\mathbb{C}^p$ mapping to a point of $X$ where $\omega\ne 0$.This is just determinant of a product is the product of determinants in local coordinates, or in a holomorphic basis of local sections of the cotangent bundle.
Aug 9, 2020 at 17:27 comment added Kamel @Ben Mackay, Okay, if $f^*(\omega ^p) =0$, it implies that $f$ is a constant? Or just $f$ is with rank $<p$?
Aug 9, 2020 at 7:23 comment added Ben McKay Zero is a measure.
Aug 9, 2020 at 4:52 comment added Kamel The fact that $f$ is not constant is sufficient or it is also necessary either of rank $=p$
Aug 9, 2020 at 1:46 comment added Amir Sagiv If $f$ is measurable, why not?
Aug 9, 2020 at 1:22 comment added LSpice The grammar of what you wrote didn't make sense to me, so I made what seemed like a small change that hopefully preserved meaning. I think that I didn't change the meaning, but please revert if I did. (In that case, though, you might want to make sure to use $\mathbb C$ $\mathbb C$ rather than $\ C$ $\ C$ (a $C$ with a forced space beforehand) as you originally had.)
Aug 9, 2020 at 1:21 history edited LSpice CC BY-SA 4.0
Proofreading
Aug 8, 2020 at 21:55 review First posts
Aug 8, 2020 at 22:19
Aug 8, 2020 at 21:52 history asked Kamel CC BY-SA 4.0