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Oct 16, 2020 at 23:41 history edited YCor CC BY-SA 4.0
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Aug 6, 2020 at 20:17 history edited zeraoulia rafik CC BY-SA 4.0
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Aug 6, 2020 at 18:41 review Close votes
Aug 22, 2020 at 3:02
Aug 6, 2020 at 18:19 comment added Lucia This question makes no sense: If $n =p^e$ is a prime power (so usually $e=1$) then $\lambda(n) =(-1)^e$ which is usually just $-1$.
Aug 6, 2020 at 14:42 history asked zeraoulia rafik CC BY-SA 4.0