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Aug 5, 2020 at 6:32 comment added H A Helfgott Yes, I stated the question wrongly. Just fixed it. Thanks!
Aug 5, 2020 at 6:32 history edited H A Helfgott CC BY-SA 4.0
added 13 characters in body
Aug 5, 2020 at 6:17 comment added Jochen Wengenroth I must misunderstand something. For $t=K/|f|_\infty$ one has $|tf|_\infty\le K$ and hence $$\langle f, A(f)\rangle= t^{-2} \langle tf, A(tf)\rangle \le t^{-2}\alpha |tf|_2=\alpha|f|_2.$$
Aug 4, 2020 at 18:03 comment added H A Helfgott I'm not sure how homogeneity would be enough - $A$ could have eigenfunctions with enormous peaks. Sure, define $A(f|_X)$ that way if you wish -- it doesn't matter, since you are going to take the inner product with $f|_X$.
Aug 4, 2020 at 17:23 comment added Jochen Wengenroth Why doesn't this hold just by homoeneity for $Y=\emptyset $? And how do you define $A (f|_X) $? Do you put the restriction as $0$ outside $X $?
Aug 4, 2020 at 11:40 history edited H A Helfgott CC BY-SA 4.0
edited title
Aug 4, 2020 at 9:28 history asked H A Helfgott CC BY-SA 4.0