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Aug 30, 2010 at 6:08 vote accept Andreas Thom
Aug 29, 2010 at 16:13 comment added Ben Green Absolutely right. I believe you can use this iteratively to prove Chang's inequality, mentioned by Kevin O'Bryant above. There is a paper of Bourgain (Lambda(p) subsets of squares, perhaps) where, instead of recalling an appropriate reference to this theory, he merely says "by linearisation".
Aug 26, 2010 at 18:41 history edited Andreas Thom CC BY-SA 2.5
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Aug 26, 2010 at 18:36 history answered Andreas Thom CC BY-SA 2.5