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Jul 31, 2020 at 11:15 vote accept A.Neves
Jul 29, 2020 at 18:26 comment added Mark Schultz-Wu Isn't it $f(x) = \exp(-\pi x^2)$ which is self-dual? I think if one uses $\exp(-x^2)$ a slightly different form of Poisson summation is required, see here.
Jul 29, 2020 at 18:12 history edited Ralph Furman CC BY-SA 4.0
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Jul 29, 2020 at 17:50 history edited Ralph Furman CC BY-SA 4.0
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Jul 29, 2020 at 17:41 history answered Ralph Furman CC BY-SA 4.0