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Aug 2, 2020 at 15:10 vote accept Jori
Aug 2, 2020 at 11:38 answer added Emil Jeřábek timeline score: 8
Aug 1, 2020 at 14:01 comment added Jori Another point: it leaves open the question of a "natural" example.
Aug 1, 2020 at 14:00 comment added Jori @Emil That sounds pretty concrete, although I cannot really follow the argument (I'm just starting out in proof theory). I've only come across reflection in the case of Con(PA) is equivalent to $\Pi_1$ reflection.
Jul 29, 2020 at 15:38 comment added Emil Jeřábek Ok. (The single axiom equivalent to) $I\Sigma_2$ is not provable in $I\Sigma_1+{}$ bounded $\epsilon_0$-induction (as the latter is a consistent $\Pi_3$ theory, while the former implies the uniform $\Sigma_3$-reflection principle). Is that concrete enough?
Jul 29, 2020 at 15:28 comment added Jori @EmilJeřábek Oh, yes, sorry: on bounded formulas. And yes, thanks for pointing that out, I meant: essentially because $I\Sigma_1$ is finitely axiomatizable. I hope it is good now :)
Jul 29, 2020 at 15:22 history edited Jori CC BY-SA 4.0
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Jul 29, 2020 at 15:20 comment added Emil Jeřábek What exactly do you mean by “$\epsilon_0$-induction”? The schema of $\epsilon_0$-induction for all formulas most definitely proves the schema of $\omega$-induction for all formulas, i.e., PA. The schema is not finitely axiomatizable unless it is restricted to formulas of complexity $\Sigma_n$, or something. (PRA is also not finitely axiomatizable, by the way.)
Jul 29, 2020 at 15:07 review First posts
Jul 29, 2020 at 15:12
Jul 29, 2020 at 15:02 history asked Jori CC BY-SA 4.0