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S Aug 3, 2020 at 12:04 history bounty ended CommunityBot
S Aug 3, 2020 at 12:04 history notice removed CommunityBot
Jul 26, 2020 at 13:57 comment added 0xbadf00d @BartMichels Convergence in $L^1$ at least implies convergence in measure and hence convergence almost everywhere along a subsequence.
Jul 26, 2020 at 11:53 comment added Bart Michels This is very similar to "convergence in $L^1$ $\implies$ convergence almost everywhere?", and it seems you can use this to produce counterexamples. FWIW, one situation where I think the implication holds, is when $\Omega$ has a nice topology, $E_1 = \mathbb C$, $f$ is jointly continuous and $L^p$-holomorphic. When you then write $f(u, \omega) - f(0, \omega) = u f'(0, \omega) + u R(u, \omega)$; you can use Cauchy's integral formula to prove that $f'$ and $R$ are jointly continuous, and then $R \to 0$ in $L^p$ implies $R \to 0$ everywhere; i.e. $f$ is pointwise holomorphic (=for fixed $\omega$).
S Jul 26, 2020 at 10:21 history bounty started 0xbadf00d
S Jul 26, 2020 at 10:21 history notice added 0xbadf00d Canonical answer required
Jul 24, 2020 at 18:35 history edited 0xbadf00d CC BY-SA 4.0
edited title
Jul 24, 2020 at 12:25 comment added 0xbadf00d @DanieleTampieri Thanks for noting. Didn't saw that for some reason.
Jul 24, 2020 at 12:24 history edited 0xbadf00d CC BY-SA 4.0
added 2 characters in body
Jul 24, 2020 at 11:03 comment added Daniele Tampieri There are two dollar sign missing in the text below formula (1).
Jul 24, 2020 at 9:46 history asked 0xbadf00d CC BY-SA 4.0