Timeline for Question about Jacobian subalgebra
Current License: CC BY-SA 4.0
9 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| Jul 22, 2020 at 15:50 | vote | accept | A.Skutin | ||
| Jul 21, 2020 at 20:04 | answer | added | Mohan | timeline score: 1 | |
| Jul 21, 2020 at 18:40 | comment | added | A.Skutin | As I know Jacobian conjecture is open even for $n=2$, so I edited the question to the case $n=2$. | |
| Jul 21, 2020 at 18:39 | history | edited | A.Skutin | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
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| Jul 21, 2020 at 18:16 | comment | added | A.Skutin | So You know that if $Q(n)$ is my question and $JC(n)$ is the Jacobian conjecture, then $JC(n)=>Q(n)=>JC(n-1)$. Assume we have proven $JC(i)$ for $i<n$ then can $Q(n)$ be proved? | |
| Jul 21, 2020 at 18:00 | comment | added | Mohan | If JC is true, the above equality is obvious. If the above equality is true in general, consider $g_i\in\mathbb{C}[x_1,\ldots, x_{n+1}]$ with $g_i=f_i, i\leq n$ and $g_{n+1}=x_{n+1}$ and apply the equality for the $g_i$s. | |
| Jul 21, 2020 at 17:52 | comment | added | A.Skutin | Do you have proof of its equivalence to JC? | |
| Jul 21, 2020 at 17:44 | comment | added | Mohan | Do you have some reason to suspect this? This is equivalent to the Jacobian conjecture. | |
| Jul 21, 2020 at 16:43 | history | asked | A.Skutin | CC BY-SA 4.0 |