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Aug 25, 2010 at 15:00 comment added M P Yes, the fact that $p$ is homogeneous plays no role in this argument.
Aug 25, 2010 at 13:44 comment added Ron Thanks for the answer. I guess the same thing can be said for all nontrivial polynomials.
Aug 24, 2010 at 15:43 history answered M P CC BY-SA 2.5