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Jul 13, 2020 at 0:40 vote accept icewater
Jul 12, 2020 at 22:46 answer added LSpice timeline score: 2
Jul 12, 2020 at 22:26 comment added LSpice It's just notation. If you can prove the result in the form in which I've stated it, then you can switch the labels $b$ and $c$ in case they're in the other order.
Jul 12, 2020 at 22:25 comment added icewater Hi LSpice - thanks for answering - the problem is that this is an argument used in a proof that $b \ge c$, so can't really make that assumption here. I'm seriously thinking this entire argument is a mistake
Jul 12, 2020 at 22:21 comment added LSpice Since the statement is symmetric in $b$ and $c$, it's probably easier just to assume that $a \ge b \ge c \ge d$ and re-write it as $f(b) - f(a) + f(c) - f(d) \le f'(c)(b - d + c - a)$.
Jul 12, 2020 at 22:16 history edited LSpice CC BY-SA 4.0
Link to paper
Jul 12, 2020 at 22:03 review First posts
Jul 13, 2020 at 3:29
Jul 12, 2020 at 21:58 history asked icewater CC BY-SA 4.0