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Jun 28, 2020 at 14:22 vote accept Léo D
Jun 28, 2020 at 14:04 answer added Nate Eldredge timeline score: 3
Jun 28, 2020 at 13:56 comment added Dieter Kadelka I have difficulties to understand the problem. Let $\|\mu\| := \sup_{A \in \cal{B}} |\mu(A)$. Then as noted in (2) $\|,\|$ and $\|,\|_{TV}$ are equivalent norms. Further $\|\mu\| = \max\{\mu^+(X),\mu^-(X)\}$. Where is the problem? In (3) there is no problem, both sides define equivalent metrics.
Jun 28, 2020 at 13:52 vote accept Léo D
Jun 28, 2020 at 14:22
Jun 28, 2020 at 11:38 comment added Léo D Thanks, if I understand: for $P$ and $Q$ probability measures, $d_{TV}(P,Q) \neq ||P-Q||_{TV}$ where $d_{TV}$ is defined in \eqref{3} and $||\cdot||_{TV}$ is defined in \eqref{0}. This is where my mistake comes from I think.
Jun 28, 2020 at 11:34 history edited Léo D CC BY-SA 4.0
added 34 characters in body
Jun 28, 2020 at 10:41 comment added leo monsaingeon There's no contradiction, since for probability measures $\mu^-=0$. Also, $\|P\|_{TV}=d_{TV}(P,0)$. The "problem" arises when BOTH $\mu^\pm$ are nonzero, as clearly illustrated by Stefan's counterexample.
Jun 28, 2020 at 10:25 answer added Stefan Waldmann timeline score: 2
S Jun 28, 2020 at 9:48 history suggested Daniele Tampieri CC BY-SA 4.0
Added hyperlinks to formulas + minor Math Jaxing ($\|$ instead of $||$) + typo correction
Jun 28, 2020 at 9:46 review Suggested edits
S Jun 28, 2020 at 9:48
Jun 28, 2020 at 9:36 review First posts
Jun 28, 2020 at 10:21
Jun 28, 2020 at 9:32 history asked Léo D CC BY-SA 4.0