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Timeline for canonical divisor of a contraction

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Jun 26, 2020 at 19:05 answer added cgodfrey timeline score: 2
Jun 26, 2020 at 18:57 comment added cgodfrey Related to the comment of @Pop: If $\mathrm{codim}(Y \subset X) > 1$ then $Z$ can't be $\mathbb{Q}$-factorial, but $K_Z$ could still be $\mathbb{Q}$-Cartier, for instance if $Z = C(\mathbb{P}^1 \times \mathbb{P}^1)$ (this is a hypersurface so $K_Z$ is Cartier) and $X = \mathrm{Bl}_{C(0 \times \mathbb{P}^1)} Z$ ($X$ is smooth, since the preimage of $C(0 \times \mathbb{P}^1)$ is a smooth Cartier divisor on X, and the exceptional set is a $\mathbb{P}^1$).
Jun 26, 2020 at 13:39 comment added user130022 By K-negative did you mean that anti canonical is ample ? How to prove that for K-negative contraction with co-dim at least $2$ contracted locus, the canonical divisor is not Q-Cartier ?
Jun 26, 2020 at 9:40 comment added Pop One has to be a little careful with terminology. It is possible to contract a subvariety of codimension 2 to get $Z$ with $\mathbf Q$-Cartier, even Cartier, canonical divisor. The basic example is the Atiyah flop: here the base of the contraction is an ordinary double point, which is Gorenstein (in particular CM). However, sometimes people use contraction to mean exclusively K-negative contraction: for a $K$-negative contraction (or any $K$-nontrival contraction), if the contracted locus has codimension 2 or more, it's true that the canonical divisor of the base is not $\mathbf Q$-Cartier.
Jun 26, 2020 at 5:28 comment added user130022 is it true that if $Y$ is of codimension at least $2$ then $Z$ is not Cohen-Macualay ?
Jun 25, 2020 at 17:09 review Close votes
Jun 29, 2020 at 1:47
Jun 25, 2020 at 15:52 comment added Devlin Mallory The normal thing to do is to compare $K_X$ and the pullback of $K_Z$ (their difference being the discrepancy divisor), but if the codimension of $Y$ is greater than 1, then $K_Z$ fails to be ($\mathbb Q$)-Cartier, so you can't pull back $K_Z$ (at least not in the usual sense). If you're interested in the case where $Z$ is not a divisor, then, it's maybe unclear how one should compare the two canonical divisors.
Jun 25, 2020 at 14:00 history asked user130022 CC BY-SA 4.0