Timeline for A question of invertibility of matrices
Current License: CC BY-SA 4.0
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Jun 25, 2020 at 15:50 | comment | added | Christian Remling | In complete generality, since $tA+B = t(A+(1/t)B)$, the second assumption is only adding the single requirement that $B$ is invertible. We can rephrase and say that we're looking at $A+tB$, $t\in\mathbb R_{\infty}$ (to interpret this rigorously, take advantage of the fact that we can always multiply by a non-zero number), which is a compact space, and the invertible matrices form an open set, so a small perturbation of an example always is an example too. | |
Jun 25, 2020 at 10:03 | comment | added | Federico Poloni | @Abeginnermathmatician Replace $A \leftarrow A-\frac12I$ to get a counterexample without zero trace. More generally, $\det(A+xB) = -x^2-1$, so small perturbations to $A$ and $B$ will give a small perturbation of this polynomial, which still has no real zero. This is an open condition. | |
Jun 25, 2020 at 9:49 | history | edited | Denis Serre | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
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Jun 25, 2020 at 8:17 | vote | accept | A beginner mathmatician | ||
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Jun 25, 2020 at 7:43 | comment | added | A beginner mathmatician | I have edited the question. I guess under my hypothesis we must have $Tr(A)=Tr(B)=0$. Your example falls into this category. | |
Jun 25, 2020 at 6:48 | history | answered | Denis Serre | CC BY-SA 4.0 |