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Jun 25, 2020 at 0:52 vote accept CommunityBot
Jun 24, 2020 at 15:53 comment added R.P. wwwf.imperial.ac.uk/~anskor/crelle.2011.121%5B1%5D.pdf (section 2)
Jun 24, 2020 at 15:48 comment added R.P. I think yes, and it should follow from the Künneth formula (the involution acting as $-1$ on $H^1$, and so as $(-1)^2 = 1$ on $H^2$). I realize I am not giving enough details to be 100% persuasive, but I am very far from being an expert on this. I think the paper by Skorobogatov and Zarhin on the Brauer group of Kummer surfaces must contain enough details to construct a proof though.
Jun 24, 2020 at 15:47 answer added SashaP timeline score: 3
Jun 24, 2020 at 2:49 history asked user39380 CC BY-SA 4.0