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Jun 23, 2020 at 8:31 comment added Taras Banakh Ok, then take a metrizable countably-dimensional lcs $X_1$ and the countably dimensional lcs $X_2$ with the strongest lcs topology (it is usually called the space $\varphi)$. Then $X_2$ is the image of $X_1\times X_2$ and algebraically, $X_2$ is isomorphic to $X_1\times X_2$. The space $X_2$ has the finer topology than $X_1\times X_2$ since the topology of $X_2$ is the largest lcs topology on $X_2$.
Jun 23, 2020 at 8:17 comment added ABIM @TarasBanakh Following your comment, I realized my initial formulation was trivial. I rephrased the question to better express what I had in mind.
Jun 23, 2020 at 8:16 history edited ABIM CC BY-SA 4.0
added 27 characters in body; edited title
Jun 23, 2020 at 7:52 history edited YCor CC BY-SA 4.0
removed capitals from title, added tag
Jun 23, 2020 at 5:09 comment added Taras Banakh Yes. Take a metrizable lcs $X_1$ and a non-metrizable lcs $X_2$. Then the projection operator $X_1\times X_2\to X_1$ is not a homeomorphism.
S Jun 23, 2020 at 1:23 history suggested ABIM CC BY-SA 4.0
Clarified OP's Title, added a link since OP describes a quotient map implicitly, and rephrased in terms of the quotient map (now that the terminology is explicit).
Jun 23, 2020 at 1:22 review Suggested edits
S Jun 23, 2020 at 1:23
Jun 23, 2020 at 1:12 history edited ABIM CC BY-SA 4.0
added 116 characters in body; edited tags
Jun 23, 2020 at 0:55 history asked ABIM CC BY-SA 4.0