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Feb 10, 2021 at 10:49 answer added Nicky Hekster timeline score: 1
Jul 5, 2020 at 20:39 vote accept Sebastien Palcoux
Jun 22, 2020 at 17:19 history became hot network question
Jun 22, 2020 at 16:25 answer added John Shareshian timeline score: 5
Jun 22, 2020 at 15:48 comment added Sebastien Palcoux @JohnShareshian: Yes, you got a counter-example for Question 1, perhaps the smallest one.
Jun 22, 2020 at 15:31 comment added John Shareshian Maybe I misunderstand something, but it seems to me that if $\chi$ is the irreducible character of $S_6$ corresponding to the partition $(3,3)$ and $g \in S_6$ is a $6$-cycle, then $\chi(g)=0$ as $(3,3)$ does not have hook shape, $\chi(1)=5$ by the hook-length formula or counting standard Young tableaux or a well-know fact about Catalan numbers, and $C_{S_n}(g)=\langle g \rangle$ has order six.
Jun 22, 2020 at 14:26 answer added Alex B. timeline score: 7
Jun 22, 2020 at 13:57 comment added John Murray See (3.7) in Isaacs, Character Theory of Finite Groups, Academic Press or G. James, M. Liebeck, Representations and Characters of Groups, Academic Press.
Jun 22, 2020 at 13:48 comment added Sebastien Palcoux @JohnMurray: your comment is very useful and deserves to be posted in answer. What is the reference for (1)?
Jun 22, 2020 at 13:27 comment added Sebastien Palcoux @TheoJohnson-Freyd: This is the statement that Question 1 asks for, but for now it is just an observation on (very) small groups, not a general conjecture (yet).
Jun 22, 2020 at 12:55 comment added John Murray Dear Sebastien, here are two facts which partially explain your observations: (1) The central character $\frac{|G|\chi(g)}{|C_G(g)|\chi(1)}$ of $\chi$ at the conjugacy class of $g$ is an algebraic integer. When gcd$(\chi(1),|C_G(g)|)\ne1$, this makes it more likely that $\chi(g)=0$. (2) Let $p$ be a prime and suppose that $|G|/\chi(1)$ is coprime to $p$. Then Richard Brauer proved that $\chi(g)=0$ if $p$ divides the order of $g$. Note that in this situation $p$ divides gcd$(\chi(1),|C_G(g)|)$.
Jun 22, 2020 at 12:51 comment added Theo Johnson-Freyd Just to parse the logic, you make the following conjecture: If $G$ is a finite group, $\chi$ a character of $G$, and $g \in G$ such that $|C_G(g)|$ and $\deg(\chi)$ are coprime, then $\chi(g) \neq 0$. Did I get it right?
Jun 22, 2020 at 9:13 history asked Sebastien Palcoux CC BY-SA 4.0