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Jun 19, 2020 at 21:03 comment added Paul thank's so much
Jun 19, 2020 at 12:56 comment added Giorgio Metafune If $\phi_R(x)=\phi \chi_{(0,R)}$, then $\phi_R \to \phi$ and $\hat{\phi_R} \to \hat{\phi}$ in $L^2$. But $\hat{\phi_R}=\int_0^R \phi (x) \sin(\xi x)dx \to \psi$ pointwise.
Jun 19, 2020 at 11:46 comment added Paul @ Giorgio Metafune According to my teacher, we can only express a fourier transform or its inverse by an integral if the function is in L ^ 1, here the function is in L ^ 2, the inversion formula $\psi (\xi)=\int_0^\infty \phi(x)e^{(i\xi x)}\, dx.=2 \int_a^\infty \phi(x)\sin (\xi x)\, dx.$ is not justified
Jun 17, 2020 at 18:59 comment added Paul @ Giorgio Metafune Thank's so much
Jun 17, 2020 at 16:15 history answered Giorgio Metafune CC BY-SA 4.0