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Jun 17, 2020 at 18:58 vote accept Paul
Jun 17, 2020 at 16:15 answer added Giorgio Metafune timeline score: 1
Jun 17, 2020 at 16:13 comment added Christian Remling The assumption about $\widehat{F}$ existing is unnecessary. We could define $F(x)=\int_{-\infty}^x f(t)\, dt \in C_0$ and take its distributional FT. In fact, it's also immediately (from $\widehat{f}=x\widehat{F}$) that $F\in L^2$, so we don't really need distributions.
Jun 17, 2020 at 16:09 answer added Christian Remling timeline score: 4
Jun 17, 2020 at 9:11 comment added Paul @Jochen Glueck thanks for the formatting (title and link) For your question, I am a little embarrassed because the question does not specify the meaning. I believe in the sence of moderate distributions. If the problem is badly posed I will wait seven september to see the professor.
Jun 17, 2020 at 0:16 comment added Jochen Glueck As for your previous question I changed the title to make it a bit more informative, and I changed the format of the link. May I kindly suggest for future questions that you try to (i) choose titles that contain a bit more concrete information about the question (phrases such as "Prove that" don't really add much information to the title) and (ii) use urls within links instead of writing down the entire url in plain text?
Jun 17, 2020 at 0:11 history edited Jochen Glueck CC BY-SA 4.0
Changed title and changed format of a link.
Jun 17, 2020 at 0:04 comment added Jochen Glueck What precisely does "such that $\hat F$ exists" mean?
Jun 16, 2020 at 23:38 comment added Paul it is a question of a professor without indications. If F is a primitive of f (F '= f) we see that $ \hat f (x) = i x \hat F (x), \forall x \in \mathbb {R} $
Jun 16, 2020 at 23:16 comment added Yemon Choi Could you say more about where this question/problem arose, and why it is supposed to have a positive answer? That is: does this come from a paper you are reading? A course you are taking? etc
Jun 16, 2020 at 22:53 history asked Paul CC BY-SA 4.0