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Jun 18, 2020 at 16:10 vote accept Marouani
Jun 18, 2020 at 16:02 vote accept Marouani
Jun 18, 2020 at 16:10
Jun 18, 2020 at 10:20 comment added dohmatob See my post below for a complete solution to the general problem. It's based on the co-area formula + Jensen's inequality. The particular case of $\mathbb C$ (i.e $n=1$) is a consequence of the elementary fact that a circle of radius $t$ has length (i.e Hausdorff measure) equal to $2\pi t$.
Jun 18, 2020 at 10:17 comment added dohmatob OK, I've updated you question to more tightly reflect what you seem to intend.
Jun 18, 2020 at 10:17 history edited dohmatob CC BY-SA 4.0
added 2 characters in body
Jun 18, 2020 at 10:09 history edited dohmatob CC BY-SA 4.0
Removed confusion mu subscripts
Jun 18, 2020 at 9:40 comment added Marouani You can forget the index but if we measure it is with respect to $\mu$
Jun 18, 2020 at 9:28 comment added dohmatob This still doesn't make sense to me. What is subscripted set $B_{\mathbf{\mu}}(r) = ???$ which appears in your integrals ?
Jun 18, 2020 at 8:45 comment added Marouani $B(r) ={z\in\mathbb {C^n} ;|z|<r} $
Jun 18, 2020 at 8:43 comment added Marouani $Vol(B_\mu(r)) $ is the volume of the ball with respect to the measure $\mu dV$
Jun 17, 2020 at 18:46 answer added dohmatob timeline score: 1
Jun 17, 2020 at 18:17 comment added dohmatob You say "Let $\mu(z)dV$ is a measure on $\mathbb C^n$". So I guess $\mu$ is a function (namely, the density of your measure w.r.t Lebesgue). Q: What does it then mean to say "Let $B_\mu(r)$ be a ball in $\mathbb C^n$ ?". More precisely, $B_\mu(r) = ???$
Jun 17, 2020 at 11:35 comment added YCor Please don't self-vandalize your own post. You can delete it if you like, as long as it has no answer (and also undelete it later).
Jun 17, 2020 at 11:35 history edited YCor CC BY-SA 4.0
un-vandalized post
Jun 17, 2020 at 11:30 history edited Marouani CC BY-SA 4.0
deleted 429 characters in body
Jun 16, 2020 at 21:43 comment added LSpice I tried to proofread this (for example, don't mix text and math in an equation; write $\operatorname{Vol}(B)$ $\operatorname{Vol}(B)$, not Vol$(B)$ Vol$(B)$), but I'm not sure I got everything right. For example, you asked whether you could generate the inequality in $\mathbb C^n$, and I changed that to 'generalize'. Please feel free to revert or re-edit if I got it wrong.
Jun 16, 2020 at 21:42 history edited LSpice CC BY-SA 4.0
Proofreading and TeX
Jun 16, 2020 at 21:41 review First posts
Jun 16, 2020 at 22:52
Jun 16, 2020 at 21:36 history asked Marouani CC BY-SA 4.0