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Jun 17, 2020 at 8:28 history closed user44191
Robert Israel
Alex M.
Ramiro de la Vega
David Handelman
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Jun 15, 2020 at 15:09 comment added Alapan Das For , large $n$, $(1-\frac{1}{2n})≈1$, hence, it's equivalent to $\sum_{k=0} x^k$.
Jun 15, 2020 at 15:03 comment added Roee @AlapanDas I don't know how to prove that $ \left(1-\frac{1}{n}\right)^p $ diverges
Jun 15, 2020 at 14:57 comment added Alapan Das In your question, $\lim \limits_{n \to \infty} (1-\frac{1}{2n(1-\frac{1}{ln(n)})+1})^{\frac{-p}{n}}≈(1-\frac{1}{2n})^{\frac{-p}{n}}$. This becomes similar to asking whether $\sum_{n=0} (1-\frac{1}{2n})^p$ is convergent or not. And obviously this is divergent.
Jun 15, 2020 at 14:46 comment added Alapan Das Yes you are right. Take the two series for example. 1) $f(x)=\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \frac{x^n}{n}$ and 2)$g(x)=\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \frac{x^n}{n^2}$. For both the series $\lim \limits_{n \to \infty} \sqrt[n]{|a_n|}=1$. But, at $x=1$, $f(x)$ doesn't converge, but $g(x)$ does.
Jun 15, 2020 at 14:39 comment added Roee @AlapanDas I've been taught that if $\lim _{n\to \infty \:}\left(\sqrt[n]{a_n}\right)=1$ the root test is indecisive, can you please explain further?
Jun 15, 2020 at 13:52 comment added Dieter Kadelka To show that $\Sigma (1-(1/n))^p = \infty$ assume that $p \in \mathbb{N}$ and use the $\zeta$-function.
Jun 15, 2020 at 13:42 review Close votes
Jun 17, 2020 at 8:28
Jun 15, 2020 at 13:32 comment added Roee @GabeConant I've tried using the direct comprasion test on $a_n$ with the sequence $ (1-(1/n))^p $ which I know diverges, but I'm not sure how to prove it.
Jun 15, 2020 at 13:28 comment added Roee @DieterKadelka I've tried using the Stirling formula, but I didn't see where it can lead.
Jun 15, 2020 at 13:16 comment added Gabe Conant Have you tried the divergence test on $a_n$?
Jun 15, 2020 at 13:08 comment added Dieter Kadelka Have you tried replacing $\ln(n!)$ with the Stirling formula?
Jun 15, 2020 at 12:56 review First posts
Jun 15, 2020 at 12:59
Jun 15, 2020 at 12:49 history asked Roee CC BY-SA 4.0