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Jun 10, 2020 at 20:52 comment added Bazin @Aleksei Kulikov You are right for my post since $x^2-\frac{(x-ry)^2}{1-r^2}$ is indeed symmetric. Sorry for the absurd question.
Jun 10, 2020 at 20:51 comment added Bazin @Carlo Beenakker Take $r=0$ in your equality, you get $x^2-y^2=y^2-x^2$. Nevertheless you are right for my post since $x^2-\frac{(x-ry)^2}{1-r^2}$ is indeed symmetric. Sorry for the absurd question.
Jun 10, 2020 at 19:25 comment added Carlo Beenakker $x^2-\frac{(y-r x)^2}{1-r^2}=y^2-\frac{(x-r y)^2}{1-r^2}$
Jun 10, 2020 at 19:09 comment added Aleksei Kulikov @Bazin I'm a bit lost. If you literally expand everything in the exponent in the rhs from your post the resulting expression will be symmetric in $x$ and $y$ (and would symbol-by-symbol coincide with the one from the answer by user69642).
Jun 10, 2020 at 18:43 comment added Bazin Thanks for your answer and for the reference, which I need to study. However, I am still puzzled, since if user69642 is correct, the logarithms of the two different rhs must be the same.
Jun 10, 2020 at 14:14 history edited Carlo Beenakker CC BY-SA 4.0
deleted 37 characters in body
Jun 10, 2020 at 14:03 history answered Carlo Beenakker CC BY-SA 4.0