Skip to main content
18 events
when toggle format what by license comment
Jun 11, 2020 at 3:58 comment added Pat Devlin This post, subsequent comments, and answers all seemed to go quite well with everybody being very cordial! Yay community! :-) [PS, I was getting groceries, so I forgot to reply for a bit, but I didn’t feel like writing an answer since it didn’t feel like the right proof anyway! What’s there now feels much better.]
Jun 9, 2020 at 1:24 history became hot network question
Jun 9, 2020 at 0:23 comment added Capublanca @Anthony Quas, thank you for the reference
Jun 9, 2020 at 0:19 vote accept Capublanca
Jun 8, 2020 at 20:41 comment added Anthony Quas Maybe you're familiar with the following somewhat-related paper, showing that if $D$ grows exponentially, then the chromatic number is finite. Katznelson, Y.(1-STF) Chromatic numbers of Cayley graphs on $\mathbb Z$ and recurrence. (English summary) Paul Erdős and his mathematics (Budapest, 1999). Combinatorica 21 (2001), no. 2, 211–219.
Jun 8, 2020 at 19:54 answer added Gabe Conant timeline score: 4
Jun 8, 2020 at 19:52 answer added Ilya Bogdanov timeline score: 4
Jun 8, 2020 at 19:37 comment added Gabe Conant I'll post a proof of what I've claimed. But if one of the earlier commenters posts theirs then it should be accepted over mine.
Jun 8, 2020 at 19:26 comment added Capublanca Thank you everybody for the interesting comments! If all of you prefer, I can edit the post by summarizing what you said so far, and by posing more refined questions. Otherwise, I keep the actual post and accept the answer of who want to write it.
Jun 8, 2020 at 18:45 comment added Gabe Conant I believe infinite chromatic number also follows from the weaker assumption of $D$ having upper Banach density 1. However, the argument is different from what @BenoîtKloeckner has written (based on the comments of @PatDevlin) since two sets of upper Banach density 1 need not intersect.
Jun 8, 2020 at 18:25 comment added Benoît Kloeckner One gets this way, with a crude estimate, that if the lower density of $D$ is at least $1-\frac{2}{k(k+1)}$ then $G_D$ has a $k$-clique, and in particular has chromatic number at least $k$. There might be lots of interesting follow-up questions in this.
Jun 8, 2020 at 18:20 comment added Benoît Kloeckner @PatDevlin: you should post an answer, this solves the question. Actually, you only need to say that if $D$ has density $1$, then so does $D_2:=\{x\in\mathbb{N}|2x\in D\}$, and so do $D_3$, ..., $D_k$. Then $D\cap D_2\cap \dots\cap D_k$ has density one, and is non empty. You get a $k$-clique.
Jun 8, 2020 at 17:53 comment added Pat Devlin (E.g., $\epsilon = 1/k^2$ can be proven by noting there are at least $n/k$ such sets the complement must intersect, and any element meets at most $k$ of these. So the complement has size at least $n/k^2$)
Jun 8, 2020 at 17:49 comment added Pat Devlin Following up on this comment, if the density is big, you’ll have big cliques (and thus big chromatic number). That is, if you insist there are no $k$-element cliques, then in particular $D$ has no sets of the form $x, 2x, ..., kx$. But this means $D$ has at most $(1-\varepsilon)N$ elements less than $N$ (for some $\varepsilon > 0$ depending on $k$).
Jun 8, 2020 at 17:37 comment added Capublanca Sure, thank you a lot for pointing it out. I edited the question, focusing on the case of density one.
Jun 8, 2020 at 17:34 history edited Capublanca CC BY-SA 4.0
added 82 characters in body
Jun 8, 2020 at 17:22 comment added Wojowu If $D$ contains no numbers divisible by $k$, then the graph is $k$-colorable, by coloring each residue class modulo $k$ differently. Hence for no $d<1$ does density $d$ guarantee infinite chromatic number. On the other hand, I believe density equal to $1$ is sufficient to guarantee that.
Jun 8, 2020 at 17:14 history asked Capublanca CC BY-SA 4.0