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Jun 8, 2020 at 21:06 vote accept JustWannaKnow
Jun 8, 2020 at 19:32 answer added Abdelmalek Abdesselam timeline score: 3
Jun 8, 2020 at 13:58 comment added Jochen Wengenroth Yes, that's right.
Jun 8, 2020 at 13:53 comment added JustWannaKnow @JochenWengenroth this is because, in this topology, a net of operators $T_{\alpha}$ converges to $T$ iff $||T_{\alpha}x-Tx||\to 0$ for every $x \in X$, right?
Jun 8, 2020 at 13:50 comment added Jochen Wengenroth I consider both names strong operator topology as well as weak$^*$ topology quite unfortunate (although they are of course standard). A good name, IMHO, would be topology of pointwise convergence.
Jun 8, 2020 at 13:47 history edited JustWannaKnow CC BY-SA 4.0
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Jun 8, 2020 at 13:46 comment added JustWannaKnow Oh, right. My bad. Gonna fix it right now! Thanks
Jun 8, 2020 at 13:43 comment added Nate Eldredge Yes, the definitions still make perfect sense for any topological vector space. Reed and Simon probably add the Banach assumption because that's the only case they care about, and because they want to prove theorems that may require that assumption.
Jun 8, 2020 at 13:40 comment added JustWannaKnow @NateEldredge thanks for the comment! Simon's terminology 'strong operator topology' for $\mathcal{L}(X,\mathbb{C}) = X^{*}$ is defined when $X$ is Banach. Here, you are defining this topology as I proposed?
Jun 8, 2020 at 13:34 comment added Nate Eldredge If $Y = \mathbb{C}$ then $\mathcal{L}(X,\mathbb{C}) = X^*$ and the strong operator topology on $\mathcal{L}(X, \mathbb{C})$ is the same as the weak-* topology on $X^*$. It's more usual to use the latter name.
Jun 8, 2020 at 13:26 history asked JustWannaKnow CC BY-SA 4.0