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Aug 20, 2010 at 15:54 history edited David E Speyer CC BY-SA 2.5
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Aug 20, 2010 at 15:26 comment added Emerton Dear David, On line 2 of para. 2, should $C_i\cup U_i$ read $C_i\cap U_i$?
Aug 20, 2010 at 15:16 comment added David E Speyer Right. I should probably mention that any example is necessarily not quasiprojective (at least over an infinite field, and I think for finite fields too). In projective space, it is easy to build a hypersurface that avoids finitely many points by varying the coefficients of the defining equation, and the complement of any (nonempty) hypersurface in projective space is affine.
Aug 20, 2010 at 14:36 comment added Charles Siegel It is, I believe as an example of a complete variety which is not projective.
Aug 20, 2010 at 14:30 history answered David E Speyer CC BY-SA 2.5