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May 31, 2020 at 6:12 vote accept A beginner mathmatician
May 31, 2020 at 4:56 history edited Yuval Peres CC BY-SA 4.0
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May 30, 2020 at 20:15 comment added Anthony Quas @Abeginnermathmatician: For a $p=\infty$ counterexample, consider the shift on 2 symbols with the Bernoulli (1/2,1/2) measure and $f(x)=x_0$. Then the pointwise limit of the averages is 1/2 almost everywhere; for each $n$, there is a set of positive measure (namely the set of $x$’s with $x_0=...=x_{n-1}=0$) where the difference between the average and the limit is 1/2.
May 30, 2020 at 20:14 comment added Jochen Glueck @Abeginnermathmatician: It is indeed in Krengel's book: For $p \in (1,\infty)$ it is an immediate consequence of Theorem 2.1.2 on page 73. Right after the theorem, Krengel explains why it is also true for $p = 1$ (as a consequence of Theorem 2.1.1 on page 72).
May 30, 2020 at 18:59 comment added A beginner mathmatician From Krengel only I am reading this. There is no proof of this fact. He only stated this. As I mentioned I could prove for $1\leq p<2$ but not for $p>2$. Also now I see that he has given only a hint for $p=\infty$. But after lot of try I could not solve that too.
May 30, 2020 at 18:37 review Low quality posts
May 30, 2020 at 18:37
May 30, 2020 at 18:21 history answered Yuval Peres CC BY-SA 4.0