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May 21, 2020 at 19:49 comment added Iosif Pinelis @IvanPetrov : Oops! I did not notice that you require the boundedness condition. With it, the result remains the same, but the proof gets quite a bit complicated by a straightforward but nasty truncation argument.
May 21, 2020 at 19:46 history edited Iosif Pinelis CC BY-SA 4.0
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May 21, 2020 at 19:40 history edited Iosif Pinelis CC BY-SA 4.0
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May 21, 2020 at 14:39 comment added Ivan Petrov Yes, but the function $f$ should be bounded (from the conditions of strong-Lipschitz convergence. But as I realise, $f(x) = x$ isn't bounded.
May 21, 2020 at 13:22 comment added Iosif Pinelis @IvanPetrov : The condition $f(x)\equiv x$ means $f(x)=x$ for all $x$, that is, $f$ is the identity function. It does meet your conditions on $f$, because the identity function is obviously Lipschitz.
May 21, 2020 at 9:26 comment added Ivan Petrov Sorry, but can you explain please why we can use $f(x)\equiv x$? Does it meet the conditions for function $f$?
May 20, 2020 at 18:29 comment added Ivan Petrov Thank you! It was very helpful!
May 20, 2020 at 14:52 history answered Iosif Pinelis CC BY-SA 4.0