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May 21, 2020 at 14:52 answer added Vít Tuček timeline score: 1
May 21, 2020 at 12:41 comment added Sam Hopkins @VítTuček: Uh, I'm not sure of a precise reference- I thought this was classical. It is mentioned in some other MO questions too: mathoverflow.net/questions/23426/…, mathoverflow.net/questions/319903/…
May 21, 2020 at 7:28 comment added Vít Tuček @SamHopkins Could you please cite the version of Borel-Weil theorem you are using?
May 18, 2020 at 14:28 vote accept Sam Hopkins
May 18, 2020 at 14:24 answer added Bertram Arnold timeline score: 3
May 18, 2020 at 14:21 comment added Sam Hopkins Is $\mathrm{Spin}(2n+1)/P$ not isomorphic to $\mathrm{SO}(2n+1)/P$?
May 18, 2020 at 14:16 comment added Gro-Tsen Isn't it simply that you get $V^{2\omega_1}$ (the Cartan square of the spin representation, which is defined at the level of $G$) as you describe, and that if you wish to recover $V^{\omega_1}$ you need to move to the $2$-fold covering $\mathrm{Spin}(2n+1)/P$ of $\mathrm{SO}(2n+1)/P$ to get a square root of the line bundle? (Disclaimer: I didn't give this much thought, so maybe this is stupid.)
May 18, 2020 at 13:25 history asked Sam Hopkins CC BY-SA 4.0