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Suppose that $M^2$ is a closed Riemannian manifold and that $u$ is a $C^2(M\setminus S),$ where $S$ is a closed measure set consisting possibly on a possibly enumerable setamount of points. Can we still conclude that $\int_M\Delta u =0?$
Suppose that $M^2$ is a closed Riemannian manifold and that $u$ is a $C^2(M\setminus S),$ where $S$ is a closed measure set consisting on a possibly enumerable set of points. Can we still conclude that $\int_M\Delta u =0?$
Suppose that $M^2$ is a closed Riemannian manifold and that $u$ is a $C^2(M\setminus S),$ where $S$ is a closed measure set consisting possibly on a enumerable amount of points. Can we still conclude that $\int_M\Delta u =0?$
Suppose that $M^2$ is a closed Riemannian manifold and that $u$ is a $C^2(M\setminus S),$ where $S$ is a closed measure set consisting on a possibly enumerable set of points, i.e, $u$ is equal to a $C^2$ function on almost every point on $M$. Can we still conclude that $\int_M\Delta u =0?$
Suppose that $M^2$ is a closed Riemannian manifold and that $u$ is a $C^2(M\setminus S),$ where $S$ is a measure set consisting on a possibly enumerable set of points, i.e, $u$ is equal to a $C^2$ function on almost every point on $M$. Can we still conclude that $\int_M\Delta u =0?$
Suppose that $M^2$ is a closed Riemannian manifold and that $u$ is a $C^2(M\setminus S),$ where $S$ is a closed measure set consisting on a possibly enumerable set of points. Can we still conclude that $\int_M\Delta u =0?$
Suppose that $M$$M^2$ is a closed Riemannian manifold and that $u$ is a$C^2(M\setminus S),$ where$S$ is a measure set consisting on a possibly enumerable set of points, i.e, $u$ is equal to a $C^2$ function on almost every point on $M$. Can we still conclude that $\int_M\Delta u =0?$
Suppose that $M$ is a closed Riemannian manifold and that $u$ is a $C^2$ function on almost every point. Can we still conclude that $\int_M\Delta u =0?$
Suppose that $M^2$ is a closed Riemannian manifold and that $u$ is a$C^2(M\setminus S),$ where$S$ is a measure set consisting on a possibly enumerable set of points, i.e, $u$ is equal to a $C^2$ function on almost every point on $M$. Can we still conclude that $\int_M\Delta u =0?$
