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May 13, 2020 at 13:09 answer added Iosif Pinelis timeline score: 1
May 13, 2020 at 13:07 vote accept Tobsn
May 13, 2020 at 12:47 comment added Tobsn Still not sure if I get your point. If we consider $p_{1}<p_{2}<p_{3}$ then in $(p_{3}-p_{2})\ln p_{1}+(p_{1}-p_{3})\ln p_{2} +(p_{2}-p_{1})\ln p_{3}$ clearly the first and third term are negative, I agree, the second term however is positive, so why is the whole term negative?
May 13, 2020 at 12:45 answer added mike timeline score: 0
May 13, 2020 at 12:22 comment added Tobsn Then why $(p_{1}-p_{3})\ln p_{2}\le (p_{2}-p_{3})\ln p_{1} +(p_{1}-p_{2})\ln p_{3}$ ?
May 13, 2020 at 11:53 history asked Tobsn CC BY-SA 4.0