Timeline for Approximate identities: a converse question
Current License: CC BY-SA 4.0
8 events
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S May 10, 2020 at 20:02 | history | suggested | CommunityBot | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
I added an assumption that may make the problem easier to answer.
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May 10, 2020 at 19:58 | review | Suggested edits | |||
S May 10, 2020 at 20:02 | |||||
May 9, 2020 at 23:09 | comment | added | Mateusz Kwaśnicki | If $f$ corresponds to, say, a bounded distribution (a continuous linear functional on the class of test functions $\phi$ such that all derivatives of $\phi$ are absolutely integrable), then $K_\lambda * f$ converges to $f$ in the space of bounded distributions, and to $g$ in $L^2$. Thus, $f = g$ almost everywhere. That said, I do not know if it is sufficient to assume that the integrals in the definition of $K_\lambda * f$ are absolutely convergent. | |
May 9, 2020 at 22:39 | history | edited | nickkatz2018 | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
added 106 characters in body
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May 9, 2020 at 22:37 | comment | added | nickkatz2018 | If $f$ is measurable, then the convolution function $K_{\lambda}*f$ is well-defined. I have added the condition that it is finite valued at every $x$. | |
May 9, 2020 at 22:09 | comment | added | Christian Remling | How do we define $K_{\lambda}*f$ if we only know that $f$ is measurable? | |
May 9, 2020 at 20:19 | history | edited | nickkatz2018 | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
added 6 characters in body
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May 9, 2020 at 19:53 | history | asked | nickkatz2018 | CC BY-SA 4.0 |