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S May 10, 2020 at 20:02 history suggested CommunityBot CC BY-SA 4.0
I added an assumption that may make the problem easier to answer.
May 10, 2020 at 19:58 review Suggested edits
S May 10, 2020 at 20:02
May 9, 2020 at 23:09 comment added Mateusz Kwaśnicki If $f$ corresponds to, say, a bounded distribution (a continuous linear functional on the class of test functions $\phi$ such that all derivatives of $\phi$ are absolutely integrable), then $K_\lambda * f$ converges to $f$ in the space of bounded distributions, and to $g$ in $L^2$. Thus, $f = g$ almost everywhere. That said, I do not know if it is sufficient to assume that the integrals in the definition of $K_\lambda * f$ are absolutely convergent.
May 9, 2020 at 22:39 history edited nickkatz2018 CC BY-SA 4.0
added 106 characters in body
May 9, 2020 at 22:37 comment added nickkatz2018 If $f$ is measurable, then the convolution function $K_{\lambda}*f$ is well-defined. I have added the condition that it is finite valued at every $x$.
May 9, 2020 at 22:09 comment added Christian Remling How do we define $K_{\lambda}*f$ if we only know that $f$ is measurable?
May 9, 2020 at 20:19 history edited nickkatz2018 CC BY-SA 4.0
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May 9, 2020 at 19:53 history asked nickkatz2018 CC BY-SA 4.0