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May 3, 2020 at 21:13 comment added Connor Mooney @Asaf: Yes, concavity implies that $c^2 - (\psi' + r^{-1}\psi)^2$ is nonnegative so we can solve for $\phi'$.
May 3, 2020 at 17:15 comment added Asaf Shachar Oh, after some further thought I think that I understand now. The concavity of $\psi$ is the crucial property which ensures that $\psi' + r^{-1}\psi $ remains below or equal $c^2$ at all times, so the ODE has a solution for as long as we want.
May 3, 2020 at 8:24 comment added Asaf Shachar It seems rather obvious, but I wonder whether there is something more that needs to be said here... Also, am I right that the reason for choosing $\psi$ concave is that we need to lower its derivative-since we start with derivative $\psi'(0)=\frac{c}{2}>1$ and we need to finish with $\psi(1)=1$, so we have to lower the speed. So, do you think that indeed any such $\psi$ would be OK?
May 3, 2020 at 8:24 comment added Asaf Shachar Thank you! this is a very nice answer. Are you are implying that one can create such a diffeomorphism for any value of $c>2$? Can you please elaborate on the general scheme you have described in the last paragraph? I understand that taking $\psi$ to be linear near the origin, you get an $f$ that is a simple dilation near the origin, so there is no problem there. Now, given such $\psi$, how do you ensure that the ODE for $\phi(r)$ will be solvable up to $r=1$?...
May 3, 2020 at 8:07 vote accept Asaf Shachar
May 1, 2020 at 22:25 history edited Connor Mooney CC BY-SA 4.0
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May 1, 2020 at 16:17 history answered Connor Mooney CC BY-SA 4.0