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Apr 30, 2020 at 22:15 vote accept Mariah
Apr 30, 2020 at 21:58 comment added R W To reformulate: $\mu(E)=1$ iff $m(E)=1$ for $v$-a.e. $m$.
Apr 30, 2020 at 21:42 comment added Mariah Can you please elaborate on why this equals $\upsilon(E^*)$? I guess I'm missing some background.
Apr 30, 2020 at 21:34 history answered R W CC BY-SA 4.0