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Apr 29, 2020 at 14:42 comment added Zoorado Your argument seems to not require any assumption of finiteness of the fields or of the extension. Is that correct?
Apr 29, 2020 at 12:17 comment added abx Yes. The action of the Galois group $G$ on $L$ extends to an action on $K\otimes _{\mathbb{F}_p}L$, and since the functor $K\otimes _{\mathbb{F}_p}-$ is exact, the $G$-invariant subfield is $K\otimes_{\mathbb{F}_p}\mathbb{F}_p=K$. Thus $(K\otimes_{\mathbb{F}_p}L)/K$ is Galois with group $G$.
Apr 29, 2020 at 10:39 history edited Zoorado CC BY-SA 4.0
Added the assumption that the tensor product is a field
Apr 29, 2020 at 10:37 comment added Zoorado Yes you are right. Let me make an edit.
Apr 29, 2020 at 9:51 comment added Dmitry Vaintrob The tensor product of two fields will not in general be a field.
Apr 29, 2020 at 9:48 history asked Zoorado CC BY-SA 4.0